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Tech Therapy: Should You Outsource Your Technology Services?

April 3, 2008, 2:01 pm

If you can’t beat Google — and let’s face it, you probably can’t — you might as well join forces with the company, at least when it comes to the e-mail business. Arizona State University recently switched to Gmail, and the institution hasn’t looked back, according to Adrian Sannier, the university technology officer.

Should your college outsource its e-mail service? Can other IT services be handed off to outside companies?

In his appearance on this week’s Tech Therapy, Mr. Sannier talks with Scott Carlson, a Chronicle reporter, and Warren Arbogast, a technology consultant, about the benefits and perils of outsourcing.

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32 Responses to Tech Therapy: Should You Outsource Your Technology Services?

Rob Fuller - May 18, 2012 at 7:27 am

“My friend enjoys good beer. One day, in search of a six-pack…”

Good beer does not come in six-packs, it comes in barrels.

rrhersh - May 18, 2012 at 7:42 am

I disagree on two points:

“Less legitimate were complaints that The New Yorker had the temerity to allow its dance critic to review a book about language.”

I took the criticism as not that it was the dance critic who wrote the review, but that it was an ignoramus (at least on the topic being discussed).  That she is the dance review was raised by way of giving her background.  Were she a dance reviewer who was also knowledgeable about the topic at hand, that would be lovely.  The suggestion, however, was that the editor assigned this review not to someone knowledgeable, but to someone readily at hand:  in this case, the dance reviewer.  This suggests a lack of seriousness.

“…there is disagreement over the pace of change. Some people think it
should be relatively swift, and others think it should be relatively
slow.”

Eh?  Who argues that this change *should* be relatively swift?  Descriptivists describe it as relatively swift, but don’t have a rooting interest in its speed.  Prescriptivists, it is true, argue that it should be slow, but to therefore suggest that descriptivists argue it should be swift is to fall into the false equivalency meme.  The two camps are in fact holding entirely different discussions:  not merely rooting for different teams.

Oh, and in reply to Rob Fuller, many excellent beers are only readily available in six- (or four-) packs.  Draft might be the Platonic ideal, but in this vale of tears we must make do.

dank48 - May 18, 2012 at 8:24 am

Language is like a Little League game, one team of more or less randomly selected players who lean toward a conservative, “proper” approach, but with a modicum of novelty, the other team ditto who lean toward innovation and informality, while still using essentially the same lingo as the other team. The players are all enthusiastic amateurs, and the differences between them are relatively minor.

Prescriptivists and descriptivists, insofar as they exist at all, are the obnoxious grandparents in the bleachers, yelling advice and jeers at the kids on the field, who are trying to play the game as well as they can, while ignoring their irritating and irrelevant elders.

studentteacher - May 18, 2012 at 8:44 am

“Amongst”: it’s ALL OVER my students’ papers: why/how?!

jffoster - May 18, 2012 at 8:48 am

Agree with both your points I do.  It was the reviewer’s and the NYT’s incompetence and ignoramosity that brought about the objection, not that she was a dance critic.

On the second, Yagoda has made a category error.  The difference between descriptivism and prescriptivism is the difference between science and ideology.  It is the difference between what is and what somebody thinks ought to be.

11161415 - May 18, 2012 at 9:06 am

Here is a striking example in which a word is replaced by its opposite to mean exactly the same thing.  It used to be that things were based on other things.  Now, according to nearly all of my students, things are based off other things.  I mark it wrong, but it is pervasive and it may win.

marcleavitt - May 18, 2012 at 9:34 am

I think of prescriptivism and descriptivism, as a linguistic parlor game, indulged in by bored visitors on a humid Sunday afternoon when the air-conditioner is on the fritz. If the rules are based on usage, instead of historical fiat, they should be obeyed, until usage changes. It’s reminiscent of code shifting: Think about talking to your doctor and talking to a friend about the Yankees and the Red Sox. The whole controversy is a bit of a bore.

nordicexpat - May 18, 2012 at 9:39 am

I think it is important to note that your point that “some people think it [linguistic change] should be relatively swift, and others think it should be relatively slow” applies more to editors and teachers of linguistic etiquette than to linguists. Linguistics is concerned with the scientific study of language, and in science a “descriptive” approach is the only valid one. However, people outside of linguistics seems to have a rather hazy idea of what “descriptivism” in a linguistic context means. A linguist is not saying that change in language should be relatively swift as opposed to slow (as your characterization of descriptivism would seem to imply). Rather, linguists are “descriptive” in the sense that they attempt to estimate which percentage of a population under which situations select a particular linguistic form out of the many that are available to them (such as “amongst” versus “among,” or singular “they” versus the other alternatives, etc). This is a much different sense of “descriptivism” than the one you provide, since the question of whether change should be “swift” or “slow” doesn’t enter into the analysis. Rather, descriptivism in a linguistic sense means describing the linguistic forms that are available to speakers of a particular dialect and the principles and factors that may lead a language user to choose from among these options a specific form in a particular context. Acocella was pretty obviously ignorant of this notion of “descriptivism.” I’m sure you are aware of what linguists mean by “descriptivism” but your post may inadvertently lead non-linguists astray.

theatheist - May 18, 2012 at 10:56 am

My take on Yagoda’s swiftness point was that he refers to the speed at which one would expect change to occur, much as a geologist might discuss the rate of sedimentation in some river. We have all heard, for example, that emigrant populations (e.g., the English who settled in the Americas) are more resistant to change than those left behind, and so on. This is the kind of thing that can generate competing hypotheses.

studentteacher - May 18, 2012 at 11:31 am

I saw it so frequently I had a class discussion about it.  I drew something literally sitting (based on) something else.  Students immediately said “but it, like, jumped off from it. ”  Some students on further thinking about the examples said, no, well some things are still “based on” the original thing, but some are, “like, tangents” which came from something prior.  So the moral of the story was to think about the relationship and describe it as accurately as we can.

And then I got the post-discussion papers where “coming off” was the new “based off.”   eeeei.  I told the students what happened, everyone laughed.  I handed back all the papers, had everyone circle all the “relationship descriptors,” and in groups articulate the relationships and redescribe, with each other’s help as needed. 

We put a list of the new descriptive phrases on the board:  came from, came out of, originated from, derived from, based on, jumped off from, and the one that got a round of spontaneous applause: has almost become an analogy for. 

Jonathon Owen - May 18, 2012 at 1:17 pm

I’m skeptical of the claim that amongst is “weirdly popular as a replacement for among.” I don’t see any corpus data that shows that it’s enjoying a resurgence. If anything, it seems to have declined in the last forty years. Among is between 50 and 70 times as frequent as amongst in COCA, and Google Books Ngrams shows roughly the same thing.

It seems more likely to me that this supposed popularity is a result of the frequency and recency illusions.

mikegrubb - May 18, 2012 at 2:14 pm

With respect to your second point, jffoster, I must disagree.  Let me see if I can express this without getting type-tied: elements of the expected ought(s) are part of the is(es), since language is a medium rather than an exercise in solipsism.  The determining question seems to me to be to what degree must idiolect bow to expectation in order for interlocutors to participate fully in a linguistic exchange.  It’s not that descriptivists don’t make that distinction and prescriptivists do, but they differ at what social layer that point is established.  I agree with you that ideology plays a role, but I would say its role is in shaping people’s perceptions of where that point is best understood to lie, not that prescriptivists suffer from it while descriptivists don’t.

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RaySWei - May 18, 2012 at 3:08 pm

Can’t we use both ‘based on’ and ‘based off’, but with different meanings? For example, when we say X is based on Y, we may be saying that it is X is an extension of Y. But when we say that X is based off Y, we mean that X is a corruption of Y. I know a lot of movies that are based off books.

studentteacher - May 18, 2012 at 4:26 pm

The word “corruption” there is interesting.  I will pass that along to students.

studentteacher - May 18, 2012 at 4:29 pm

Ah, but in my student papers, it’s everywhere.  Students from the Caribbean have told me it’s standard there.

jffoster - May 18, 2012 at 4:50 pm

Take a look at Nordicexpat’s comment below.

gavin_moodie - May 18, 2012 at 9:43 pm

Prescriptivism versus descriptivism may be ‘boring’ but it is not insignificant since there still seems to be many who consider natural languages to be like mathematics: a human construct in which precision if not correctness is important and common usage mostly irrelevant.

Incidentally, isn’t ‘in order’ redundant in ‘in order to’ and ‘in order for’?

mbelvadi - May 19, 2012 at 8:49 am

I really think you miss the entire issue with this assumption: “Among the participants in each of these, there is, at any given moment, a general shared understanding about what is expected and accepted diction, syntax, and usage.”  All of the prescriptivist-type arguments that I’ve heard tend to come from a lack of shared understanding, even within a given subregister/etc.  Your next two points about change over time and dispute about the pace of change pretty much undermine that point that there’s shared understanding.
I really can’t tell from all this what your point is in saying you’re “bored” by the debate. At some point the rubber hits the road and you, like thousands of others who grade compositions, have to decide if a student’s use of language is correct or incorrect (will points be taken off or not) for the given register-context. So are you just saying that everyone is a prescriptivist and it’s just a matter of defining the prescriptions narrowly enough per register and making sure to change the prescriptions according to some pace of change (defined how?)?

yabba - May 19, 2012 at 3:58 pm

Your axiom no. 4 misidentifies the source of the tensions between the pre- and the de- scriptivists. The problem isn’t a disagreement about the pace of change.

The problem is that the two groups fundamentally disagree about who should codify what the “shared understanding” is, and how that should be done. Prescriptivists believe in principle that language norms can be decreed. Their Bibles were written by Strunk & White, Fowler, etc., and their present-day prophets are professional editors (or anyone else who wants to affect an air of knowledgeable conservatism, as cheaply as possible), tossing off the odd usage column in their spare time.

Descriptivists have a big beef with that. They think that in principle, empirical research should count more than dogmatic authority. And secondly they have identified a set of maxims, cherished by the prescriptivists, which are terribly wrong not because language has changed but because it never was the way these rules say it should be. But the prescriptivists as often as not reply to these findings with pure bluster.

That gets the descriptivists’ goats in the same way that creationism gets biological scientists’ goats. There’s the refusal to listen to empirical arguments; and then there’s the added insult of implying that the other guys are people whose heart isn’t in the right place – in this case, that descriptivists believe there aren’t any rules or shouldn’t be any rules or some other tripe like that. And all the while, in their own usage the prescriptivists blithely ignore their own rules.

There is also a practical consequence, which is quite simply that the youth of today, when they ask for help to write good English, are still being being given exactly these wrong rules, and then nothing. Talk about the son asking for bread and being given a stone.

And there is a wider context in that the prescriptivists’ maneuvers are reprehensible. Screwing around with facts, brazening your way through criticism, and making up arbitrary rules for other people which you ignore yourself are not good habits (in other fields they are the stuff of financial bubbles, environmental disasters and unnecessary wars). Language discussions offer as good a sandpit as any to cultivate better ones.

dancha - May 19, 2012 at 10:39 pm

It seems to me that all speakers and listeners, writers and readers have opinions, sometimes very strong, of what language is appropriate in any particular context. Some readers or listeners respond negatively when they deem the language they encounter to be inappropriate (too-long words, hopefully as a sentence adverb, for two).  The reasons the complainers give  (such as belief in some rule)  may be called into question, but it seems to me that the reasons don’t matter. A negative reaction to a way of writing or speaking is part of the way we use language, and the justifications we give may be entirely beyond the point.  The very same training that makes some people write and speak the way they do also makes them react negatively when “rules” are broken. Speaking a particular way and reacting negatively to other kinds of speech are two sides of the same coin.

If I understand this dichotomy correctly, a descriptivist won’t be upset if a speaker never splits an infinitive, even if the reason is that some seventh-grade teacher drilled that made-up rule into her or his head. But if the speaker explains where this behavior pattern comes from, a belief that there’s a _rule_, it seems to me that descriptivists will want to challenge that assertion.  But it’s not _all_ kinds of false beliefs evoke challenges. My use of the word “pea” apparently traces back to the mistaken belief that that “pease” was a plural word “peas.” As far as I  can tell, descriptivists don’t seem to be interested in challenging the way false ideas bring non-standard usages into the language. But they do seem interested in challenging the false ideas proffered by prescriptivists (such as the denial of any educated acceptance of the singular “they.”)

If the complaints of prescriptivists are seen as a means of exposure of how some people process and use language, and how they read, listen, and react to language (as opposed to just observing speech and writing), it would seem to me that descriptivists would want to study the utterances of prescriptivists neutrally, rather than trying to debate them.

(I’m sure some descriptivists will see things differently, and I hope to learn how.)

Jonathon Owen - May 20, 2012 at 2:11 am

And is this a cause for concern? Amongst is more common in Commonwealth countries, and even in the US I don’t see it as something to worry about.

yabba - May 20, 2012 at 7:17 am

Anyone is free to write without split infinitives, if that’s what they want to do. They are also perfectly welcome to say that in their personal opinion, it’s a good idea not to split infinitives.

But what they are not welcome to do is to say that split infinitives are wrong or bad English, i.e. to suggest that avoiding split infinitives is a rule of the same status as, for example, the rule that says the elements of a coordination must be syntactically similar. They aren’t, and it isn’t.

dancha - May 20, 2012 at 10:14 am

Thanks, Yabba. It was only one small example, and perhaps not the best. Yet I think it illustrates my main point that, for some people, the “personal opinions” are  beliefs in universal imperatives. It seems to me that the acquired brain wiring that makes someone speak a particular way and in a particular context also generates (in some circumstances) strong negative reactions to perceived violations. It’s perfectly common for a personal opinion to be shared in in such a way that it comes out as  a directive imposed on other people. It’s more likely, the stronger the beliefs. And though the rationales given for these rules may be irrelevant or factually wrong, what seems most important to me is the belief in these rules. (ou seem to be saying that you have a preference as to how they express their belief in these rules.)
This happens a lot with strong opinons in all social spheres, I think, and I am grateful that prescriptivists are not legislators– that their only power to change language comes from their power to persuade. And to the extent their power is strong at certain times, such as in school, that’s part of how formal written and spoken language is learned. Isn’t it the case that the “rules” you discern from an analysis of speech and writing are the largely result of a combination of “rules” we have been taught, and speech/writing that we imitate? (I know there are lively discussions about which language elements are innate, but is that discussion relevant here?) As such, do descriptivists want to get involved with the actual process of language acquisition by changing the way grammar, writing, and speech are taught in schools? 
When a prescriptivist says something about the permissiveness of some dictionary (or some descriptivist) and the decline of civilization and the like, it may be hard to avoid getting sucked into a debate. But within those pronouncements can also be found a window into the mental model of what language is to those speakers. It exposes a bit of the act of reading and listening, something that is otherwise hard to come by, and seemingly a valuable source of neutral study. No?

RaySWei - May 20, 2012 at 2:06 pm

The expression “not too big of a deal” may have been analogously formed from “not too wide of the mark.”

nordicexpat - May 20, 2012 at 3:18 pm

I think the problem is that you are thinking that descriptivism and prescriptivism are two different ways of looking at the same phenomenon, when, in fact, the concerns of each are radically different. Prescriptivists are concerned with relatively minor and arbitrarily selected points of usage and variation (say, whether it is acceptable to use “who” in place of “whom” in something like, “Who(m) did you speak to”). Given that the concerns of prescriptivists are so narrow and arbitrarily selected, the only insight into language you will get by looking at what prescriptivists say about language is the attitudes people have *about* language and the reasons they invent to explain why they have those attitudes: this will give you more insight into ideology than language (It doesn’t help that prescriptivists often have no idea what they themselves say. I remember getting into an argument with a prescriptivist about some usage or other, and showed him that he himself used the form he had said wasn’t proper English on numerous occasions. His response was,”The spirit is willing, but the flesh is weak.”) 

As I said above, there is debate among teachers, copy editors, and other teachers of linguistic etiquette about whether to maintain a “conservative” style (whatever that means in a given context) or whether to allow a more “permissive” one (again, whatever that means in a given context), but this debate is not really what “descriptivism” means in a linguistic context. The difference between prescriptivists and descriptivists is not that prescriptivists are concerned with how people should speak whereas descriptivists are concerned with how they actually do speak. Rather, as jffoster says above, descriptivism is the empirical basis of linguistic investigation, whereas prescriptivism is a form of linguistic ideology.

(And I didn’t say this before, but it’s been bothering me. Trying to describe how language is changing based on selective attention to the behavior of students in your classroom is the equivalent of trying to describe climate change by periodically looking out your window).

dancha - May 20, 2012 at 5:13 pm

(I meant to reply to jffoster with this post…)
Put in those terms (2nd point), you’d think communication on that subject would come to an end very rapidly. But isn’t it possible that the ideology part is superficial, arising only to support existing beliefs about language, and as such can be overlooked as uninformative? Rather, might not the reactions by “prescriptivists” to certain (albeit arbitrary) usages of language still reveal something about how brains process language, providing information not captured by analysis only of what is spoken or written? That is, you may observe that I never split an infinitive (say), and some other people do, but you’d never know whether I feel intense pain whenever someone else splits one.  Is there no scientific advantage to try to quantify such experiences, especially as they might be tightly tied up with the mental processes that determine how I write and speak?

So if a “prescriptionist” cites a “rule” it’s possible on one hand to say that her reasoning is faulty, her understanding is inadequate, and she has no standing to impose rules anyway. But another way of dealing with that observation is to note that you’ve been given an observation about the experience of listening or reading. The rationales are not so interesting, but the articulation of the perceived rules (whether or not they’re always obeyed) may complement what we can observe by limiting observations to spoken and written communication. Again, is there no scientific value in making such observations?

jffoster - May 20, 2012 at 5:59 pm

to dancha,
    to the extent there is any scientific value in the observations you outline (and Im not clear on what the things you want to observe are), it would tell us about things like personal psychology, and how some people react to people doing something different from what they do or think people ought do.  It will tell us little or nothing about language. 
   
See also and particularly nodicexpat’s reply to you well down the thread and also his original to the original poster Yagoda not quite so far down the thread.

dancha - May 20, 2012 at 7:52 pm

Thanks, jffoster. I have read those posts, and they didn’t seem to resolve the question I was trying to articulate, but rather other, also interesting related questions. You have now answered the question as well as I can expect.  I share with you a lack of interest in the issue of how people deal with thwarted expectations in general. But the specific expectations that are thwarted in the current instance are closely related to how language is acquired (say, when young people are corrected or when “rules” are taught in school). I think the expectations of readers and listeners are important for how language works in practice, and that mismatched expectations can interfere with good communication. Often, these expectations are not observable, but when prescriptivists provide lists of “rules” they have acquired, those lists would seem to shed light on the process of language acquisition. There’s no need to pay any credence to the validity of these rules or applicability to anybody other than their promoter, but they do seem to reveal something about mental models of language (for lack of a better expression) of the person articulating them.

  Thanks for your patience with this thread, and I’ll drop it here if you think it has been played out.

studentteacher - May 21, 2012 at 9:06 am

Not worried about it :) Just responding to the original article’s noticing quite a change over the last few years and wondering about how it is happening.

jffoster - May 21, 2012 at 10:04 am

to dancha,
    You’re welcome. Sorry couldn’t help more. One of the things to keep in mind is that people have largely learned at least one dialect of the language by the time they get to school and the stuff that happens in prescribing what the schools perceive as “standard”.  So a lot of people wind up knowing twor or more dialects.   The URL below will take you to Arnold Zwicky’s Blog and post he did sometime ago The Siren Song of Whom which has some discussion along a line that might be close or at least tangental to what you’re trying to get at.

http://arnoldzwicky.wordpress.com/2011/04/25/the-siren-song-of-whom/

alanbroomhead - May 22, 2012 at 6:20 am

 Isn’t it supposed to be “based off of?”